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icon5.gif  Math Question #1 ***updated with the solution*** [message #357810] Sun, 09 November 2008 05:20 Go to next message
archerman is currently offline  archerman
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index.php?t=getfile&id=7973&private=0
i need a step by step solution for this "simple" math problem without using l'hopital's rule. you can tell the solution verbally.

enjoy.

  • Attachment: math.JPG
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sorry for my English

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[Updated on: Tue, 11 November 2008 02:12]

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Re: Math Question #1 [message #357817 is a reply to message #357810] Sun, 09 November 2008 08:32 Go to previous messageGo to next message
CarrierII is currently offline  CarrierII
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If Y = Sin(5X) / 2 - 2 * Cos(2X)

then as X -> 0, Y -> infinity.

If X = 0 then

Sin(5X) = Sin(0) = 0.

2 - 2Cos(2*0) = 2 - 2Cos(0) = 2 - 2(1) = 0. - Can't divide by zero!

Thus if X is almost 0, we have

Sin(5X) / 2 - 2Cos(~0) which is
Sin(5X) / 2 - 2*(~1) which is
Some number / Some other number < 1 and close to 0. This causes the whole expression to increase in value because you're dividing by a fraction.



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[Updated on: Sun, 09 November 2008 08:33]

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Re: Math Question #1 [message #357820 is a reply to message #357817] Sun, 09 November 2008 09:23 Go to previous messageGo to next message
archerman is currently offline  archerman
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CarrierII wrote on Sun, 09 November 2008 17:32

If Y = Sin(5X) / 2 - 2 * Cos(2X)

then as X -> 0, Y -> infinity.

If X = 0 then

Sin(5X) = Sin(0) = 0.

2 - 2Cos(2*0) = 2 - 2Cos(0) = 2 - 2(1) = 0. - Can't divide by zero!

Thus if X is almost 0, we have

Sin(5X) / 2 - 2Cos(~0) which is
Sin(5X) / 2 - 2*(~1) which is
Some number / Some other number < 1 and close to 0. This causes the whole expression to increase in value because you're dividing by a fraction.




maybe i didnt understand, but how would you know that the numerator increases more as the denominator increases less? maybe the numerator is a fraction too. sin5x is the closest to zero, and 2-2cosx is the closest to zero as well because 2-2cosx=2-2*1=~0. so its still 0/0.



sorry for my English

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[Updated on: Sun, 09 November 2008 09:25]

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Re: Math Question #1 [message #357822 is a reply to message #357810] Sun, 09 November 2008 09:26 Go to previous messageGo to next message
StealthEye is currently offline  StealthEye
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Your answer is correct, carrier, however the method is not. Try the same with assuming the divident is "some number" and your approach will lead you to the limit being 0, which is not correct.

I can't really come up with a correct prove either however. Closest I can get is to say that y=sin(a) behaves like y=a for x~0 and b=cos(a) behaves like 1 in that interval. Computing the limit after substituting those gives lim=+inf. This, however, is not solid prove either (actually, it's just disguised 'l hopital).

I would expect it would be possible to rewrite the 1-cos(x) to some sin variant or vice versa and then solve it to get rid of (one of) the trig functions. 'l hopital is much easier. Sad


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Re: Math Question #1 [message #357830 is a reply to message #357810] Sun, 09 November 2008 11:05 Go to previous messageGo to next message
CarrierII is currently offline  CarrierII
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My point about the "some number / some other number thing" was that the numerator doesn't matter, for small values of X, the denominator will always be a small fraction, and so the limit will always be +infinity even if the numerator is a fraction...

Oh: I should add (otherwise my reasoning is flawed) that for X < 33 degrees the numerator > denominator for this. I got that from trial and error informed by some graphs, but you could prove it by solving

Sin(5X) > 2 - 2CosX and find the values for which it is true.


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[Updated on: Sun, 09 November 2008 11:07]

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Re: Math Question #1 [message #357854 is a reply to message #357810] Sun, 09 November 2008 14:39 Go to previous messageGo to next message
StealthEye is currently offline  StealthEye
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Solving that (without graphs) is probably just as hard as finding the limit though. Razz

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Re: Math Question #1 [message #357859 is a reply to message #357810] Sun, 09 November 2008 15:18 Go to previous messageGo to next message
NukeIt15 is currently offline  NukeIt15
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Re: Math Question #1 [message #358030 is a reply to message #357810] Tue, 11 November 2008 02:11 Go to previous messageGo to next message
archerman is currently offline  archerman
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just got the solution:

index.php?t=getfile&id=7996&private=0
  • Attachment: solution.JPG
    (Size: 11.20KB, Downloaded 455 times)


sorry for my English

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[Updated on: Tue, 11 November 2008 02:11]

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Re: Math Question #1 [message #358033 is a reply to message #358030] Tue, 11 November 2008 02:38 Go to previous messageGo to next message
nopol10 is currently offline  nopol10
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Actually, lim(5/x,x,0) (Limit of 5/x as x -> 0) is not infinity as limit of 5/x as x->0 from the negative side and the limit of 5/x as x->0 from the positive side are not equal. Therefore the limit is undefined. It is infinity only when x->0 from the positive side and negative infinity when x->0 from the negative side.

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Re: Math Question #1 [message #358036 is a reply to message #358033] Tue, 11 November 2008 04:08 Go to previous message
archerman is currently offline  archerman
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nopol10 wrote on Tue, 11 November 2008 11:38

Actually, lim(5/x,x,0) (Limit of 5/x as x -> 0) is not infinity as limit of 5/x as x->0 from the negative side and the limit of 5/x as x->0 from the positive side are not equal. Therefore the limit is undefined. It is infinity only when x->0 from the positive side and negative infinity when x->0 from the negative side.


you are right. the graph of y=5/x is similar to y=1/x which is like:

index.php?t=getfile&id=7997&private=0

so limit doesn't exist.

index.php?t=getfile&id=7998&private=0
  • Attachment: 1overx.gif
    (Size: 2.26KB, Downloaded 774 times)
  • Attachment: solution.JPG
    (Size: 13.50KB, Downloaded 491 times)


sorry for my English

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